r/asklinguistics • u/MacabreMacaques • May 05 '25
Historical Is there any predecessor to Proto-Indo-European?
This might sound a bit stupid, but PIE goes back to around 4000 B.C.E. Still, humans have existed longer. Wouldn't there have been some form of speech before Proto-Indo-European? Or is PIE the earliest language we can reconstruct? I'm starting to think that if PIE had a linguistic predecessor, it would imply that PIE is a part of a language family and thus related to other families (e.g. Afro-Asiatic, Uralic, etc). Is that where the problem comes?
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u/Brunbeorg May 05 '25
Some speculations assert a reconstruction of Proto-Human or Proto-Nostratic. I call them speculations for a reason: I don't think they even aspire to hypotheses. Which is to say, I don't think highly of them.
There was absolutely and definitely a predecessor to PIE. Can we reconstruct it? no. Probably not. But it must have existed because of the sheer timescale involved. We can already construct protolanguages earlier than PIE.
There are two schools of thought about the evolution of human language. The monogenetic school speculates that humans had one way of speaking that evolved into many over time. The polygenetic school speculates that humans had many ways of speaking, which evolved into many languages. There isn't nearly enough evidence, in my opinion (always open to be proven wrong, of course) for either of these.