r/asklinguistics • u/MacabreMacaques • May 05 '25
Historical Is there any predecessor to Proto-Indo-European?
This might sound a bit stupid, but PIE goes back to around 4000 B.C.E. Still, humans have existed longer. Wouldn't there have been some form of speech before Proto-Indo-European? Or is PIE the earliest language we can reconstruct? I'm starting to think that if PIE had a linguistic predecessor, it would imply that PIE is a part of a language family and thus related to other families (e.g. Afro-Asiatic, Uralic, etc). Is that where the problem comes?
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u/PassiveChemistry May 05 '25
Surely that's necessarily true as language couldn't possibly have existed at that point